Assalamu Alaikum Sheikh, I would like to seek your guidance on a situation involving the evil eye and how we should treat others in Islam. I understand that Islam acknowledges the evil eye and that some people prefer not to publicly share good news, especially regarding pregnancy, out of fear of the evil eye. My wife and I have been unable to have children due to a medical condition. Some people in our close social circle are aware of our situation. We have noticed that whenever someone in our circle becomes pregnant, they share the news with almost everyone in the group except my wife. When the women get together, they sometimes discuss these matters among themselves but deliberately avoid mentioning them in front of my wife or exclude her from those conversations. Although they may think they are keeping the news private, it becomes quite obvious to my wife that something is being hidden from her, especially when everyone else already knows. This makes her feel isolated and excluded from the group. I fully understand that everyone has the right to keep their personal news private, and we respect that. We are genuinely happy for others when Allah blesses them with children. However, what concerns me is the way my wife is treated differently from everyone else. My questions are: 1. What does Islam teach about concealing good news, such as pregnancy, out of fear of the evil eye? 2. Is it appropriate in Islam to share good news with everyone in a close social circle while deliberately excluding one person? 3. Does Islam permit treating someone differently simply because they are struggling with infertility? Could this behaviour unfairly suggest that the person might cause the evil eye? 4. How should Muslims balance protecting themselves from the evil eye with maintaining kindness, sensitivity, and respect towards others? 5. What would be the best Islamic way for my wife and me to respond to this situation? I do not want to judge anyone’s intentions, as only Allah knows what is in their hearts. I simply want to understand what Islam teaches about this situation and whether such behaviour is consistent with Islamic manners and the rights of fellow Muslims. JazakAllahu Khairan for your guidance.

**Subject: Marriage Question — Divorced Woman Whose Guardian Refuses Without Valid Reason** *Assalamu alaikum wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuh,* *I am writing to request your guidance on a matter of marriage that has caused our families great difficulty for over a year.* **About me:** I am a Muslim man, originally from Pakistan and currently residing in the United States, where I hold a stable job and support myself independently. I was previously married and that marriage ended in divorce. I have no criminal history. I am serious in my intention and fully prepared to fulfill all the obligations of a husband — the mahr, provision, housing, and treatment of a wife with ihsan, as Allah has commanded. **About the sister:** Salma is a Moroccan Muslim woman. She was previously married, and that marriage ended in divorce. She is therefore a thayyib (a previously married woman). **How we came to know each other:** We first made contact in September 2025, when I was going through my own divorce proceedings. Over time, our conversations became serious with the intention of marriage. I asked her directly whether her parents would agree to marry her to me, and she told me they would, because she herself is a divorced woman and they had accepted her first marriage as her own choice. **Our relationship was never hidden:** For more than 13 months, we have spoken with the full knowledge of her family. Her mother knows about me. Her brothers know about me. Her sister knows about me. Salma even informed her father directly that she was speaking with a man who wished to marry her, and her father told her, *"We will talk about it when the time comes."* Her mother went further — she told Salma that after the marriage, a room in the family home would be designated for me, so that whenever I visit from abroad, we would stay there as her husband. We understood this as the family preparing to welcome me. **What happened:** When Salma formally approached her father with the marriage proposal this year — we had planned to marry in November — he refused. His only stated reason is that I am a foreigner, and that "foreigners do not treat their wives the right way." He has given no other objection. No one has asked about my faith, my character, my work, or my family — no one has ever given me the opportunity to meet the family, to answer their questions, or to present myself in any way. I have been completely excluded from the process; I am told they do not even wish to hear my name. Salma has pleaded with her father multiple times, in front of other family members, and he continues to refuse. **My question:** A divorced woman — a thayyib — has more right to herself than her guardian, according to the authentic hadith of Khansaa bint Khidram al-Hilaliyyah (Sahih al-Bukhari and Sahih Muslim), and Allah says in Surah al-Baqarah (2:232) not to prevent divorced women from remarrying on fair terms. At the same time, I know the hadith "There is no marriage except with a wali" is also authentic. Please clarify: 1. In our situation, may Salma marry without her father's consent, given that his only objection is my nationality — a reason the Shari'ah does not recognize as valid grounds for refusal? 2. If she may not, what is the correct, permissible procedure for her in Morocco? Can a judge (qadi) or an authorized body act as her wali, and what steps would that require? 3. Is a marriage contracted after such a refusal valid, or would it be contested? 4. What is the responsibility of the wali in this case — is he sinning by continuing to refuse without a Shari'ah-valid reason? 5. What is your advice for how I should proceed — and is there anything I can do from abroad to correct this situation? I am not seeking a loophole or a secret marriage. I want a marriage that is correct in the sight of Allah and accepted by her family, and I am willing to take whatever lawful steps that requires. I ask Allah to guide you as you answer, and I thank you for your time. *Jazakum Allahu khairan.* *Chaudhary Waqas Shafqat* McAlester, Oklahoma 405 450-4107

Asalamu alaikum, my divorced sister who has 2 adult sons with her ex husband. She wants to visit him in ICU. She left her home because of mental health as he denied that his divorce counted. Also she worked and paid towards and maintained the home that they shared. He did not give her anything of that property and didn’t pay towards the children neither. Is she allowed to visit him? Could you advise please

Assalamu Alaikum Wa Rahmatullahi Wa Barakatuh, Respected Sheikh,I am writing to seek your scholarly guidance regarding a retail transaction I wish to make here in Canada while ensuring my finances remain entirely compliant with Shariah principles.I need to purchase a smartphone costing approximately $1,200 CAD. To manage my budget, I would like to pay for the device in structured monthly installments of $50 over a 24-month period. However, all conventional local options—including commercial banks like RBC and major telecommunications carriers like Bell and SaskTel—require signing a contract that contains late fee penalties or interest clauses (Riba). For example, local telecom providers legally mandate a late payment interest fee of approximately 41% per annum if a bill is missed.To completely prevent ever activating these penalties, I intend to set up Pre-Authorized Debit (an automated banking feature that automatically withdraws the exact bill amount from my checking account on the due date). This completely removes human error and ensures a late penalty is mathematically never triggered.As a follower of the Shafi'i Madhhab, I kindly request your guidance on the following questions:Is it Islamically permissible to sign a retail or telecom contract that contains a Riba clause, given that I am certain my automated system will prevent the clause from ever being activated?Since communication tools are a necessity of modern life and Canada currently lacks Shariah-compliant consumer installment alternatives, does this transaction qualify as a valid necessity (Hajah)?If signing this contract is strictly prohibited due to the presence of the clause itself, what alternative method do you advise for a Muslim who needs to budget a retail purchase through monthly installments?JazakAllahu Khairan for your time, knowledge, and guidance.

Assalamu alaikum wa Rahmatullah What Must a Woman Cover When Alone at home or in her room? What must a woman cover in front of mahram men?

I am a woman and I was having sexual thoughts before bed and I fell asleep. Upon waking up I found a small amount of arousal fluid which I attributed to the thoughts I was having before bed. I did not have any sexual dream of any nature. I am now having doubts that the arousal fluid may have been from whilst I was asleep which would require me to do ghusl, however it was a small amount and not to the amount I would usually have upon orgasm. Do I need to do ghusl?

Assalamualaikum, I've been investigating for almost 2 years, I can't forget the date it was 22 September 2024, I was alone at home. I remember thinking about the rulings of talak 1 and talak 3, I was thinking which one can reconcile and which one can't reconcile. While thinking, I may have uttered a sentence regarding talak. But after that day, I kept questioning and I keep trying to know if the utterance was made in loud voice or soft voice or just mouthing without voice? I also keep trying to find out if it was uttered, did I mention my wife or not at all? Did I say talak 1 or talak 3 if it was uttered? After too many times trying to remember, I get more confused about what really happened. From my understanding, divorce doesn't count if it's not attributed or directed to wife and also if sound was not produced. My main worries are : 1. Did I utter in loud voice or whispering or mouthing without voice at all? 2. Was it directed to wife by saying "you" or "my wife" or did not mention wife at all? 3. If it was uttered, was it talak 1 or talak 3?

Question regarding the validity of my Nikah due to my beliefs at the time of marriage Assalamu alaikum, I would like to ask about the Islamic ruling regarding my Nikah and whether it was valid according to Sharia. I married my Muslim husband in a Nikah ceremony on 17 January 2024. At the time of the Nikah, I was not Muslim. I had been baptized and confirmed as a Christian when I was younger, but I never personally believed in Christianity or practiced the faith. I officially left the church in 2018. Since around 2015, I considered myself an atheist and identified with modern (atheistic) Satanism, meaning I did not believe in any deity, including Allah. This was a philosophical identity rather than a belief in a literal Satan. My husband knew about my actual beliefs at that time, but when arranging the Nikah, he told the Imam that I was Christian. The Imam was not aware that I was an atheist and that I had left Christianity. Approximately eight months after our Nikah, I sincerely converted to Islam out of conviction. My questions are: 1. Was our Nikah valid according to Islamic law, considering that I was an atheist at the time and not actually Christian, Jewish, or Muslim? 2. Does the fact that my husband presented me as Christian to the Imam, while knowing my actual beliefs, affect the validity of the Nikah? 3. Since I later accepted Islam sincerely, does my conversion have any effect on the status of the previous Nikah? 4. If the Nikah was not valid, what is the correct Islamic procedure regarding our marriage and separation? I would be grateful for an answer according to Islamic jurisprudence, including the relevant madhhab or scholarly opinion if there are differences of opinion. Jazakum Allahu khayran.

Assalamualaikum , I am really confused. When I was alone, did I utter the word of div*** in a loud voice or whisper or inner monologue so I could hear myself, or not? I keep asking myself if any sound came out of my mouth. Sometimes it feels like I spoke, and sometimes it feels like I didn't. How can I know for sure? Also, I wonder if the sentence was complete. Did I mention my wife, or not at all? By that, I mean did I use words like "you," "my wife," her actual name, or nothing at all? I keep stressing over this. For example, did I just say "Div**** tal** 1 (or 3)"? Or "I div***, tal** 1 (or 3)"? Or "I div**** you/my wife/[wife's name], tal** 1 (or 3)"? Was it attributed to wife or not? Sometimes I also wonder if I used the word "If." For example, did I say "If I div**** tal** 1 (or 3)"? The scariest part is, if I did say it, did I say tal** 1 or tal** 3? I have been worrying deeply about this for almost 2 years. I have been repeatedly asking myself the same question "Did I utter aloud or not?", "Did I mention my wife or not?" "What was the exact sentence?" "Did I say tal** 1 or 3"? I'm very scared and I don't know what to do

Assalamu alaikum, I am starting to think about purchasing a house, I am thinking about islamic mortgage Please can you tell me if this is permissable, I have been looking at Gatehouse islamic mortgage specifically, is their offering halal? JazakAllah