Anonymous
1
Salam,
I am aware that property/land bought with the explicit intention to sell at the time of purchase is subject to zakāt, however what happens in the following?
I bought shares in a property, with the intention of renting it for some time (5 years) but also with the intention of definitely selling it upon maturity of the rental period. Do I have to give zakāt on this when the property is put on the market after the rental period if the zakāt date enters and the property is not yet sold?
