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Two days fast or just one?

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#1 [Permalink] Posted on 10th November 2014 18:21
A person is in UAE during Ramzan.

Ramzan in UAE is one day ahead of Pakistan.

He didn't fast on 28 of Ramzan due to medical reasons.

Then he comes to Pakistan and then didn't fast on last day of Ramzan.

My question is, does he have to fast for 2 days now to make up for those days or just 1?
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#2 [Permalink] Posted on 10th November 2014 22:27
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#3 [Permalink] Posted on 10th November 2014 22:36
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Q. Can you advise on the obligations of fasting during the month of Ramadhan while travelling/staying away from home? Is there a difference between actual travelling days versus days stayed away? For eg: If I travel for two days (1 to destination and 1 return) and spend 5 days in another country.

A. While you are on a journey and you have crossed the minimum distance of being a Musafir (traveller), the fast of Ramadhan will still be compulsory upon you, however, you will be given the allowance to delay it to a time when you have become a resident.
When you leave your vicinity and you are about to cross a distance of 48 miles, then you will become a traveller, and all the laws of travelling will be applicable to you as long as you are travelling. When you have arrived at your destination, you will continue to be a traveller as long as you are remaining for any period of time which is less than 15 days. Here, you will not include the travelling days. Instead, you will count only the days that you are staying at that location. If your stay is less than 15 days, then all the laws of travelling will be applicable to you. If however, your stay at that place is 15 days or more, then you will be a resident, and the laws of journey will not be applicable to you. In this case, when you intend to travel back to your home, then you will become a traveller if you will be covering a distance of 48 miles.

And Allah knows best.

Mufti Waseem Khan

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#4 [Permalink] Posted on 11th November 2014 18:57
My main point of asking was about following problem.

1. UAE is one day ahead of Pakistan in Ramzan
2. If a person completes full 30 days Ramzan in UAE and then go to Pakistan next day and fast then it means he did fast for total of 31 days
3. Now the things is, the person skipped one day in UAE let's say 20th Ramzan and when he goes to Pakistan he skips one more. So now he has skipped 2 days but since Pakistan is one day behind UAE so shouldn't we say that he only skipped one day?
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