Please read again what i said.
It is not that I don't deem myself in a position to understand the word (Look back at the definition i gave in previous reply). I never said anything about not being qualified to understand the word. Where did you get this from brother? What I said is what reason do i have to INTERPRET this word based on my level of understanding when scholars of past have done so. My job is not define this word in order to offer tawil for the verse. For that i need proof. The scholars have defined what the verse means. There is an Ijma.
This boils down to simple fact "Do i have a reason to follow my understanding of this issue over the scholars' understanding of this issue?" I think not.
These are the rules that you would be very much aware of.
1) Can i interpret the Quran without scholarly qualification?
2)Can i offer tawil for the particular verse "without" proof?
3)Can i contradict Ijma or consensus?