In the first scenario it seems to be fine, bceause one does not deny ones biological lineage by adopting the surname of the husband's family. Yet in the second case it's supposed to be impermissible due to the clear Hadith, but would not also here the rule of permissibility apply as long as the child is not regarded as a biological offspring? The question is quite relevant because if someone for example in Germany wants to officially adopt a child it's given the adoptive parents' surname. In this third scenario of an unknown child it seems to be fine again.
Anyone has an idea how to reconcile between these?
This cannot be undone and I am sure it will be greatly appreciated.
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