Assalamoalikum Till yesterday I was not aware of conditional divorce. Few days I ago I said to wife if you continue with abusive and vulgar language I will leave you. It was neither threat nor divorce. What I had decided that if she continue same I will send her message of divorce. And same message to few others as witnesses. But I was not certain if I will do on first instance or tolerate 2-3 times and then do it. Kindly clarify if is it conditional divorce or promise of divorce. Extremely confused.

I live in Florida and would visit theme parks for an outing with my husband, however I found out that the theme parks and resort support Israel by donating money to them a few years ago. Is it sinful for me to visit the amusement park?

I had a heated argument 10 years ago in which i said in extreme anger 'go to your parents house' to my wife, intent is uncertain due to how long it was but could be that i said the words due to anger. I cannot recall the amount of times this was said at the time or if other kinayah words were used. My question is; 1. Is this talaq e bain ? 2.if i uttered the same words or kinayah words multiple times in the argument would this be multiple talaq? 3.would i need to redo nikah?

It is stated that women should not go out of the house unless there is a need. However, the need referred to in the Hadith was to relieve themselves as there weren’t any inside toilets at that time! There’s also proof that women are allowed to go outside to visit the mosque! But apart from these two examples how do we know that women are allowed to go out to visit friends and family like female cousins even though these might not be considered needs? I read on one websites that women can go to visit their parents often but apart from that they can only go to meet other relatives once or twice a year as more than this is not a need. So if I want to go to visit my female cousins more often like twice or thrice a week, even if it isn’t a need, will this be allowed or will I be sinful for going out without a need?

As-salamu ‘alaykum wa rahmatullahi wa barakatuh, I would like to ask about a situation that is causing me waswasah (intrusive thoughts). My wife was upset with me one day and said to me: “You don’t want to be a husband.” From her tone and the context, I think that she meant that I wasn’t acting emotionally or affectionately enough — not that she was questioning our marriage itself. I wanted to replied to her, “Of course I want to be a husband. But your always being so rude” What I meant in my heart was, “Of course I want to act like a good husband and be more emotionally expressive. But your always so rude so don’t want to be so emotional ” However, when I starting to say this this, i only said the words “of course” and not the rest of the sentence as I started to get waswasah. A few minutes later (around 5–15 minutes after), I clearly told her, “Of course I want to act like a husband,” to clarify what I had meant from the beginning. specific doubts came to my mind: 1. Because I am already her husband, I worried that some about to say “I want to be a husband” might somehow have a wrong or invalid meaning — as if it could affect the marriage. 2. I also got waswasah that when I said “Of course,” I might have been agreeing with her statement (“you don’t want to be a husband”) — even though I did not intend that at all. I just paused after the “of course” and didn’t say anything else as the waswasah was in my head. I meant to reassure her that I do want to be an emotional but she is rude so it’s hard to be emotional. 3-, I clearly told her, “Of course I want to act like a husband,” to clarify what I had meant from the beginning. And am also worried about me saying I wanna act like a husband as well. 4- I’m worried because my wife said in anger that she might is gonna marry have kids with someone else, and I replied out of annoyance, saying something like ‘They’d be ugly,’ without any intention or seriousness. Does replying to her hypothetical scenario like that affect our marriage in any way? 5- Hypothetically if a woman tells her husband she’s gonna divorce him then get him arrested and he replies that if she gets him arrested he will get her arrested. But doesn’t intend anything by saying that. He is scared as he is replying to the hypothetical scenario of divorce but doesn’t intend or want that at all. Does that affect marriage in any way. Please clarify do any of these scenario affect anything May Allah reward you immensely for your patience Ameen.

Salam, my name is Ahmad and I’m 21 living in USA, my question is what do I need to do for my dua to be accepted? Currently I live with my parents, because I’m dependent on them. My Dad who is the primary provider of the house, his income is haram, and our house is bought with RIBA. I work in a grocery store in the produce section where about 5-7 percent of the products have bacon, like the salads. My question is is my job halal, or would that make it haram. Also what do I and my family need to for our duas to be accepted. Please pray for me and my family that Allah SWT suffices us with that which is halal so we may leave the haram. Because duas of people who have haram sustenance income food clothing are not accepted. What if I make dua to Allah the one which I asked above would he accept my dua since I’m trying to make a change or would It still be rejected. Please advise, may Allah reward you

Assalamu alaykum. I read a fatwa on your website under number #10762; here is the link: https://qa.muftisays.com/?10762 I did not understand one point. According to this fatwa, if someone started a business using stolen money, then later returned that money and all the income earned from the business, but the business continues to generate income because he replaced the capital with his own savings — does this mean that the person is obliged to give away all subsequent income from this business for as long as the business exists? My second question: if someone stole (or bought using stolen money) a laptop and learned programming with it, would the income earned later from that knowledge and those skills be haram? If so, does this mean it is impossible to purify this, and that for the rest of his life those skills and knowledge in his mind would remain haram and cannot be used? Please answer according to the strictest opinion among all madhhabs. As I understand it, the fatwa numbered 10762 is based on the Hanbali madhhab.

Asalamualaikum may Allah reward you have a hypothetical question 1)Hypothetically if a man has intention of “talaq” keeps his mouth closed and tries to breathe the word through his nose, for example ‘talaq”’, without pronouncing it with his tongue or mouth, does that count as “talaq” Woukd that do anything to the marriage.? For example if u close ur mouth and Try to breathe so ur breathing out like the word "hello” as u breathe through ur nose as your Tryna say that through breathing 2) If a man only says the first letter of the word ‘talaq’ (for example just ‘t’) and stops does that do anything 3) I didn’t do any of these and suffer form extreme waswasah how can I combat waswasah. 4)also as I was typing in the point above how “ I didn’t do any of these “ I paused after typing the “I did” before adding the rest cause of waswasah.I then cut it all then typed it all again. does the pause do anything. I have no intention Jazakallah

Aww, During 2 extremely heated arguments I pronounced the word talaq to my wife. Both times I had lost control and both times we made up straight away. On the third occasion again we had an argument and this time I walked away and said the words we are finished as I was exiting the house but she did not hear these as I was now outside and she was inside. Does this mean our nikah is now not valid? My wife has been told saying talaq in anger means the talaq is not valid and a hadith from Abu Dawud was mentioned. Please advise as we are both confused. Jzk

I would like clarification on the Islamic ruling regarding a husband’s obligation of maintenance during the ʿiddah period. If a woman requests a divorce due to her husband’s disloyalty, emotional neglect, and failure to uphold her Islamic rights, and the husband then issues a divorce, is he still obligated to provide maintenance during her ʿiddah if she chooses to stay at her mother’s home rather than remaining in the marital home—especially if she left the marital home due to his actions and the negative impact on her mental and emotional well-being resulting from his failure to fulfil his responsibilities as a husband? Additionally, if there was an agreed-upon amount of maintenance during the marriage that the husband failed to provide, can the wife request this amount as part of her Islamic maintenance during the ʿiddah? If he did not give it during the marriage, is he still obligated to pay it? Finally, if the wife left the marital home during the ʿiddah and did not return, does this affect the husband’s obligation to provide maintenance during that period?