Assalamu Alaikum, Hope you are well! I am keeping my identity anonymous due to the sensitivity of the topic. Ive read below two article which has made me really worried. https://askimam.org/public/question_detail/16194 Please read above article. My situation is below: Unfortunately my marriage has got off to a rocky start. I have been married 2.5 months. Multiple times when ive been at home alone, ive imagined and acted out scenarios in my head of me ending the marriage. To a point where im audibly uttering the statement of divorce and my wifes (Maryam) name. Realistically i dont want a divorce but all these thoughts of me ending the marriage and putting Maryam down has come to mind. To the point, ive physically acted these scenarios out. Ive never wanted to divorce or end the marriage, although thoughts have been there thinking is this marriage sustainable and if its better to end. But deep down i want to try and save this marriage with the hopes Maryam will change. Because ive audibly made these statements more than 3 times, im worried that the divorce has took place Islamically. The words that I uttered in the scenario was 'Maryam i officially d*******e you'. This was in the scenario i was acting out and i didnt want it to be real. Also ive always been alone when this has happened. Also, after discussing this issue with my parents, it has caused a lot of stress to the point the scenario keeps replaying in my mind, and i keep quietly saying the words that i used. This is not to end the marriage but its just because im overthinking a lot and replaying it in my mind and saying it to myself without realising as the situation is constantly replaying in my mind. Its because im really worried that i have issued divorce without meaning to. I tend to overthink a lot and act out a lot of scenarios that havent happened but could potentially happen. Currently im feeling under a lot of stress thinking that my marriage has ended because of what i did. I also have been very obsessive and overthinking a lot. Is this all waswasa? Is my marriage and Nikah still in-tact? Or have i given divorce? I was acting out a imaginary scenario. I overthink a lot and suffer from undiagnosed anxiety. Please get back to me asap as this has caused me a lot of stress. Jazak'Allah

We are stable family living in west for last 18 years. me and my wife works and i do spend my money for family needs and entertainment, my wife say its her money and she do not want to spend on family, which is fine but she also force me to spend all my money in family and do not share any money to my siblings even occasionally. even though i am covering all expanse for family and have enough to support where i want. she always bring issues with money to spend in family for extra entertainment travel etc. although i am covering more then enough for family. sometime she complain about the money i used to spend on my mother, she is single. but now she is no more. I want to know is it my decision and freedom to spend where do I spend and what is the percentage i can spend on myself? Also i need to knoe what is my farz to spend on family, nafaqa is what i heard is farz which is minimum needs to live like food, shelter, and basic clothing. Please explain to me, am i doing wrong to lend money to my siblings?

Alaikum wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh, Respected Fatwa Committee, We respectfully seek guidance regarding a family dispute concerning the estate of our grandfather. We are not requesting calculation of inheritance shares, but rather clarification of the Sharia principles that should govern the matter so that the family may resolve it according to the Qur’an and Sunnah Grandfather passed away leaving three sons — and three daughters. Background Son 3 migrated from India to Pakistan around 1990 to establish a business. During the Granfather’s lifetime, Son 3 received capital and financial assistance for this purpose. In addition, certain family assets in Pakistan were liquidated/distributed between the family members residing in Pakistan, namely Son 3 and one of the daughters. These assets were retained by them without being shared with the siblings residing in India. The daughter residing in Pakistan, has stated that her mother (Grandfather’s wife), had informed her that the common assets situated in Pakistan were intended for the children residing there, while the common assets situated in India were intended for the children residing in India. The daughters residing in India were given residential flats by the Grandfather during his lifetime and possession was transferred to them. Although there was no written statement that these represented their inheritance shares, the understanding of at least one surviving daughter was that this was her allocation from the family wealth. In India, the Grandfather, Son 1, and Son 2 were legal partners in the family business under a formal partnership deed with defined ownership shares: Grandfather: 40% Son 1: 30% Son 2: 30% Sons 1 and 2 actively managed, operated, and developed the business for many years through their full-time involvement, while the Grandfather reduced his daily involvement. During the Grandfather’s lifetime, the three business partners (himself along with Sons 1 and 2) had agreed that the wedding expenses of the children of Son 1 and Son 2 would be reimbursed from the business. The wedding expenses relating to Son 2’s children were paid from the business during the Grandfather’s lifetime. Son 1’s children were younger at that time, so their corresponding reimbursement was paid after the Grandfather’s death. At the time of this payment, Son 1 and Son 2 were the surviving business partners, and Son 2 accepted and agreed to this settlement before the remaining business capital was divided between them. During the Grandfather’s lifetime, certain properties and business-related assets were acquired from business funds and were legally registered/transferred to other family members with his knowledge and without objection. Current Issue Approximately eleven years after the Grandfather’s death, Son 3 has raised questions regarding certain arrangements relating to the Indian business and assets. In particular: He questions whether certain assets connected with Son 1 and Son 2 should be considered part of the Grandfather’s inheritance. He contends that the amount paid to Son 1 after the Grandfather’s death for his children’s wedding expenses should be treated as Son 1 receiving part of the inheritance, rather than a settlement of a pre-existing business agreement/obligation among the partners. We therefore respectfully request clarification on the following Sharia principles: Questions 1. Where a father and his sons were legal business partners with a written partnership deed and clearly defined ownership percentages, should inheritance apply only to the father’s actual ownership share at the time of death, or can the entire business and its assets be considered part of the father’s estate? 2. If business partners agreed during the father’s lifetime that certain family expenses would be reimbursed from the business, but the payment to one partner occurred after the father’s death due to timing circumstances, and the only remaining partners accepted and settled it, should this payment be considered: a settlement of a valid business obligation/agreement between partners, or an inheritance distribution received by that partner? 3. If assets were purchased, registered, or transferred during the father’s lifetime with his knowledge and acceptance, can heirs later challenge those arrangements after his death and include such assets within the inheritance estate? We request your guidance so that the family can correctly distinguish between: a. the actual estate (tarkah) left by our Grandfather at the time of death, b. valid partnership rights and obligations, and c. arrangements or transfers completed during his lifetime. Our aim is to apply one consistent Islamic principle to all family members and resolve this dispute fairly in a manner pleasing to Allah. Jazakum Allahu Khairan.

Assalamu Alaikum wrwb, I had a few questions regarding marriage and I have been very unclear and I need proper guidance on this. Around last year, I got engaged and it broke off due to some issues. However, when I get proposals, is it important for me to tell them this (whoever proposes)? Another question I had regarding marriage is that when I get proposals, I tend to automatically think to myself that I am going to say no, not for any particular reason, but simply just because I am not interseted, but I do istikhaara anyway, because although I am young, I am at a marriageable age and I don't want to lose my chances with a proposal and my parents play a big part because they often tell me or ask me what reason I have to say no which puts me in a lot of pressure. How do I know I am ready and how do I know it's good for me? I have heard of many sheikhs and ulama saying the signs of when you are ready for marriage and I feel like I don't meet some of them. Are my emotions playing a big role in this and am I being unreasonable with unnecessary doubts, or are my thoughts valid? Jazakallahu Khayran

Peace be upon you, Sheikh and may Allah’s mercy and blessings be upon you. Respected Sheikh, May Allah preserve and bless you. I am a 27-year-old man who has been married for one year. Our marriage did not begin in the best way; both of us overlooked concerns, red lines, and warning signs, hoping that our differences could be overcome with time. My wife was clear from the beginning about her lifestyle, habits, and values, and that she had no intention of changing them. Nevertheless, I hoped that she might eventually reconsider or change with time. After many difficult experiences and disagreements, we have now reached a dead end. I recognize that I made mistakes at the start and should have been clearer and firmer regarding my boundaries and expectations. The situation now is that my wife has made the following conditions for continuing the marriage: * Frequent travel to Western countries for entertainment, events, parties, exhibitions, swimming, and similar activities. * Participating with her in movies, TV series, music, and games so that we can share common interests. * She does not intend to wear what I consider the proper Islamic hijab. Instead, she wishes to find alternative ways of dressing that still allow her to feel attractive, especially outside Arab countries and in front of her relatives. She rejects the abaya, and the maximum she is willing to wear is loose pants, a top with sleeves to the elbow, and a beanie covering her head. * She wants me to accept her as she is and not object to these choices. If I offer advice, she only wants it to be gentle and without insistence, and let her decide whether she wants to abide or not, as it is "none of my business" She is fully aware that I believe some of these matters contradict clear Islamic teachings. However, her response is that she has her own path with Allah, that she is trying in her own way, and that she does not accept being reminded through religious arguments or scriptural evidence. She has now given me an ultimatum: either I accept these conditions or we proceed with divorce. My question is: Is it permissible for me to limit myself to gentle advice in order to preserve the marriage, or should I end it if its continuation depends on compromising what I believe to be religious obligations? In such a situation, should preserving the marital bond take precedence, or should adherence to what I understand to be my religious duty take priority? my utmost appreciation

Assalamualikum I have a lot of facial hair and they grow very fast. Can i shave in first ten days of zilhaj? it is socially very difficult for me since i work as a doctor and they are making me look horrible

Assalamu alaikum. I had money on my bank card that I had stolen from the state. We needed to pay the internet bill, which is usually handled by the parents. Since my parents didn’t want to go to the store to pay through the terminal, they asked me to pay the internet bill, so I paid it using that money through my phone. Later, they gave me back the same amount (since they are the ones who usually pay the internet bill). The money they gave me back was not stolen, but it was forbidden (haram). Then I used that internet to create a website and earned money from it. My question is: do I need to return the profit to the person I stole the money from? I heard that income earned from stolen money must be returned to its rightful owner. Or is my case different, and I should simply pay for the time I used the internet for work (3–4 days), so that my income becomes halal and pure? I have already sent money equivalent to 3–4 days of internet usage to a charity organization. Has my income now become clean?

Salam, I run a video game console repair shop. Some customers ask me to modify their device so they can : Installing Google Maps, YouTube, or WhatsApp Making a full backup of the console Transferring their data to another console These modifications require bypassing the console’s protection measures (“jailbreak” or “modchip”) in order to have full control of the device. I do not violate copyright. I do not provide any pirated games, and I do not help with illegal downloads. 1/ Is it halal to bypass a console’s protections in order to install legal applications such as YouTube or Google Maps? 2/ Am I responsible if the customer later uses my intervention to commit piracy at home, even though I do not help him with that?

AssalaamuAlaykum, I wanted to find out if working Compensation Rating and Inspection Bureau (CRIB) it acts as the central, non-profit regulatory body responsible for administering the state's workers' compensation system. It establishes insurance rules, sets premium rates, and classifies employers to promote a fair marketplace. This position is in information technology department as a software developer. They dont sell insurance but monitors other insurance carriers agents and employers etc. Essentially, CRIB serves as the technical, actuarial heart of workers' compensation system, ensuring that rates are properly set and that employers are properly insured. Jazakumullah khairan

Assalamualaikum, I am planning to study in the USA for a master's from India, but I have not found any way to fund my studies so far, except by taking out a loan to get a visa. I tried to apply for scholarships, contacted the department and did everything, but the funds that I will receive will still not be enough to get the visa. Therefore, is it permissible to sanction a loan and later cancel it after getting a visa? Why I am saying that is because my father is gonna sell some of his assets to fund my studies, but so far he has not found any buyer for those assets, but he is sure that he will be able to sell those assets before my master's studies begin. Therefore, can I sanction a loan and not disburse the amount from it and cancel it later after getting the visa? Is it permissible to do so?