Assalamu alaikum, I am starting to think about purchasing a house, I am thinking about islamic mortgage Please can you tell me if this is permissable, I have been looking at Gatehouse islamic mortgage specifically, is their offering halal? JazakAllah

Peace be upon you. Every day I keep thinking when I was alone at home, 'Back then, was I thinking about the explicit words of div*** and accidentally uttered them while thinking?', 'If I uttered them, did a sound actually come out or not?', 'Was the sentence directed toward my wife or not? Did I mention "wife" or not? What exactly was the sentence? Was it "Div*** tal** 1" or "Div*** tal** 3" or "I div*** tal** 1" or "I divorce tal** 3" or "I div*** you/my wife/[wife's name] tal** 1 (or 3)"?' With or without wife's being mentioned? Please help, what should I do? Even though I already went through the court verification process before, I am worried that I did not provide the court with the exact details. What I told the court back then was that I felt the words were explicit. The judge asked about my level of certainty, and my answer was 50-50—sometimes it felt like a sound came out, and sometimes it felt like it was just in my heart. Because of that, it was not validated (it was ruled as not having occurred). I am worried that this happened simply because my testimony wasn't sufficient to validate it. Until now, I am still trying to dig up my past memories of that moment: was I just thinking while uttering it, or was it without sound? If it was uttered, did I mention my wife or not? If it was uttered, was it tal**1 or 3? I am so worried to the point that I am wondering if I should do the court verification process all over again? Over and over again, I keep pondering whether a sound came out or not, whether it was directed at my wife or not, and if it was uttered, was it tal** 1 or 3? What should I do?

اسلام علیکم I work for a broadband regulator. My project is to find themes/topics in customer complaints. With this information, they might use it to make sure broadband providers are bing compliant with the regulations. They also might use it to come up with new regulations. My fear is that it is enforcing laws that would amount to major shirk/kufr. I do not know all of the regulations but they are put in place to make customer experience easier. For example, one regulation is that if a customer joins, the broadband provider has to switch the customer over themselves and cancel the customers old contract for them. Is this violating shariah since if is putting a responsibility on the merchant that isn't outlined in shariah? Or are these kinds of adminstrative laws that are ok to implement? JazakAllahu Khairan

Assalamu alaykum. Suppose I was developing a website or program at home, actively using the internet. The internet and electricity were paid for with stolen money, the chair I sat on while working was also bought with stolen money, and the rent for the house where I was working was paid with haram money, and so on. When a person starts a business with stolen money, they are obligated to return the profits as well—does this principle apply here, or is the income itself halal in this case, and are these two things different? I know about the obligation to return what was stolen, but I’m interested in the status of the money itself: as long as the stolen money hasn’t been returned, is the income from developing the website halal?

I am writing to seek your guidance regarding a matter that has caused me severe, ongoing mental distress. I have been constantly ruminating and replaying an event from September 22, 2024, every single day. The main issue I face is that my mind keeps forcing me to ask the same questions countless times: a. Was it actually spoken out loud, was it just mouthing without a voice, or was it merely an inner monologue? (Did I actually hear it with my own ears?) b. If I did utter it, was it directed at my wife? Did I explicitly mention her name, use a pronoun like "you," or say "my wife"—or was there no attribution at all? c. If it was indeed uttered, did I say talaq 1 or talaq 3? To provide some important context: in January 2025, I went to the Syariah Court for verification. The process was highly challenging because, due to severe fear and constant rumination, I could not recall or state the exact sentence with any certainty. Initially, the court could not verify anything because I was unable to provide a definitive statement for the judge to review. To allow the session to proceed, I eventually told the judge what I thought I might have said while alone, which was, for example "I div__ce you." When the judge asked about my level of certainty, I replied that it was "50-50"—meaning there was a 50% chance it was uttered out loud, and a 50% chance it was just silent mouthing without sound. Consequently, based on this lack of certainty, the court ruled that no talaq had occurred. Despite this official court ruling, I still feel deeply anxious, obsessive, and scared. My mind keeps tormenting me because I never specified to the judge whether it was talaq 1 or talaq 3 in that hypothetical scenario. This leaves me feeling incredibly uneasy, causing me to replay the event of September 22, 2024, over and over again in a loop. I am very scared and exhausted by these thoughts. Given that the court already ruled that no talaq occurred due to my 50-50 uncertainty, should I accept this as final and ignore these thoughts as waswas (obsessive doubts)? Or am I required to go to the court again to do another verification? I would deeply appreciate your guidance. Jazak'Allah Khairan.

اسلام وعليكم We have our minds set on naming our daughter Bareea after the name of sahabiyyah "Bareea Bint Abi Harithah". Kindly, advise us regarding the meaning/origin of this name and if this name is acceptable in islam?

Does the koran says that the Allah of Muhummad was same God that the polytheistic arabs called Allah.

Assalamu Alaikum, Hope you are well! I am keeping my identity anonymous due to the sensitivity of the topic. Ive read below two article which has made me really worried. https://askimam.org/public/question_detail/16194 Please read above article. My situation is below: Unfortunately my marriage has got off to a rocky start. I have been married 2.5 months. Multiple times when ive been at home alone, ive imagined and acted out scenarios in my head of me ending the marriage. To a point where im audibly uttering the statement of divorce and my wifes (Maryam) name. Realistically i dont want a divorce but all these thoughts of me ending the marriage and putting Maryam down has come to mind. To the point, ive physically acted these scenarios out. Ive never wanted to divorce or end the marriage, although thoughts have been there thinking is this marriage sustainable and if its better to end. But deep down i want to try and save this marriage with the hopes Maryam will change. Because ive audibly made these statements more than 3 times, im worried that the divorce has took place Islamically. The words that I uttered in the scenario was 'Maryam i officially d*******e you'. This was in the scenario i was acting out and i didnt want it to be real. Also ive always been alone when this has happened. Also, after discussing this issue with my parents, it has caused a lot of stress to the point the scenario keeps replaying in my mind, and i keep quietly saying the words that i used. This is not to end the marriage but its just because im overthinking a lot and replaying it in my mind and saying it to myself without realising as the situation is constantly replaying in my mind. Its because im really worried that i have issued divorce without meaning to. I tend to overthink a lot and act out a lot of scenarios that havent happened but could potentially happen. Currently im feeling under a lot of stress thinking that my marriage has ended because of what i did. I also have been very obsessive and overthinking a lot. Is this all waswasa? Is my marriage and Nikah still in-tact? Or have i given divorce? I was acting out a imaginary scenario. I overthink a lot and suffer from undiagnosed anxiety. Please get back to me asap as this has caused me a lot of stress. Jazak'Allah

We are stable family living in west for last 18 years. me and my wife works and i do spend my money for family needs and entertainment, my wife say its her money and she do not want to spend on family, which is fine but she also force me to spend all my money in family and do not share any money to my siblings even occasionally. even though i am covering all expanse for family and have enough to support where i want. she always bring issues with money to spend in family for extra entertainment travel etc. although i am covering more then enough for family. sometime she complain about the money i used to spend on my mother, she is single. but now she is no more. I want to know is it my decision and freedom to spend where do I spend and what is the percentage i can spend on myself? Also i need to knoe what is my farz to spend on family, nafaqa is what i heard is farz which is minimum needs to live like food, shelter, and basic clothing. Please explain to me, am i doing wrong to lend money to my siblings?

Alaikum wa Rahmatullahi wa Barakatuh, Respected Fatwa Committee, We respectfully seek guidance regarding a family dispute concerning the estate of our grandfather. We are not requesting calculation of inheritance shares, but rather clarification of the Sharia principles that should govern the matter so that the family may resolve it according to the Qur’an and Sunnah Grandfather passed away leaving three sons — and three daughters. Background Son 3 migrated from India to Pakistan around 1990 to establish a business. During the Granfather’s lifetime, Son 3 received capital and financial assistance for this purpose. In addition, certain family assets in Pakistan were liquidated/distributed between the family members residing in Pakistan, namely Son 3 and one of the daughters. These assets were retained by them without being shared with the siblings residing in India. The daughter residing in Pakistan, has stated that her mother (Grandfather’s wife), had informed her that the common assets situated in Pakistan were intended for the children residing there, while the common assets situated in India were intended for the children residing in India. The daughters residing in India were given residential flats by the Grandfather during his lifetime and possession was transferred to them. Although there was no written statement that these represented their inheritance shares, the understanding of at least one surviving daughter was that this was her allocation from the family wealth. In India, the Grandfather, Son 1, and Son 2 were legal partners in the family business under a formal partnership deed with defined ownership shares: Grandfather: 40% Son 1: 30% Son 2: 30% Sons 1 and 2 actively managed, operated, and developed the business for many years through their full-time involvement, while the Grandfather reduced his daily involvement. During the Grandfather’s lifetime, the three business partners (himself along with Sons 1 and 2) had agreed that the wedding expenses of the children of Son 1 and Son 2 would be reimbursed from the business. The wedding expenses relating to Son 2’s children were paid from the business during the Grandfather’s lifetime. Son 1’s children were younger at that time, so their corresponding reimbursement was paid after the Grandfather’s death. At the time of this payment, Son 1 and Son 2 were the surviving business partners, and Son 2 accepted and agreed to this settlement before the remaining business capital was divided between them. During the Grandfather’s lifetime, certain properties and business-related assets were acquired from business funds and were legally registered/transferred to other family members with his knowledge and without objection. Current Issue Approximately eleven years after the Grandfather’s death, Son 3 has raised questions regarding certain arrangements relating to the Indian business and assets. In particular: He questions whether certain assets connected with Son 1 and Son 2 should be considered part of the Grandfather’s inheritance. He contends that the amount paid to Son 1 after the Grandfather’s death for his children’s wedding expenses should be treated as Son 1 receiving part of the inheritance, rather than a settlement of a pre-existing business agreement/obligation among the partners. We therefore respectfully request clarification on the following Sharia principles: Questions 1. Where a father and his sons were legal business partners with a written partnership deed and clearly defined ownership percentages, should inheritance apply only to the father’s actual ownership share at the time of death, or can the entire business and its assets be considered part of the father’s estate? 2. If business partners agreed during the father’s lifetime that certain family expenses would be reimbursed from the business, but the payment to one partner occurred after the father’s death due to timing circumstances, and the only remaining partners accepted and settled it, should this payment be considered: a settlement of a valid business obligation/agreement between partners, or an inheritance distribution received by that partner? 3. If assets were purchased, registered, or transferred during the father’s lifetime with his knowledge and acceptance, can heirs later challenge those arrangements after his death and include such assets within the inheritance estate? We request your guidance so that the family can correctly distinguish between: a. the actual estate (tarkah) left by our Grandfather at the time of death, b. valid partnership rights and obligations, and c. arrangements or transfers completed during his lifetime. Our aim is to apply one consistent Islamic principle to all family members and resolve this dispute fairly in a manner pleasing to Allah. Jazakum Allahu Khairan.