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Misconception regarding nikah in Muharram and safar!

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abu mohammed, Maria al-Qibtiyya
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#1 [Permalink] Posted on 16th October 2014 20:53
Asslam u alequm brothers!

i just came across a misconception few days back that many people do consider the month of muharram and safar not suitable for nikah they think that it will cause misfortunate and all that stuff etc
i also heard that Hazrat Fatima r.a got married in the month of safar and Prophet Muhammad s.a.w got married with Hazrat Safiya r.a in the month of Muharram but i am not sure about it thats why i am requesting if anybody can provide an authentic reference regarding these events!
i tried googling but couldnt find anything relevant!

Also i would like everyone to please share their views regarding these false misconceptions!
jazak Allah
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#2 [Permalink] Posted on 16th October 2014 21:06
It is a misconception. Partly a Shia belief too. For individual months, please see here.

www.muftisays.com/forums/12-virtues/5163-islamic-months.html

With regards to the later part of your question, Allah knows best. Maybe some of the others may be able to help, alternatively, please refer to the Ulama.
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#3 [Permalink] Posted on 17th October 2014 12:21
abu mohammed wrote:
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Jazak allah bro!
i am waiting for other members may be someone can provide reference regarding those events .
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#4 [Permalink] Posted on 17th October 2014 12:43
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Prophet Muhammad s.a.w got married with Hazrat Safiya r.a in the month of Muharram but i am not sure about it

UNCONFIRMED: Prophet Muhammad (saw) married Safiyah early in Rabi-Awwal 7 AH

Regardless of that, the misconceptions remain as misconceptions and are false beliefs anyway.
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#5 [Permalink] Posted on 17th October 2014 12:58

n.a.m.e wrote:
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Sorry, wrong reference please delete.

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#6 [Permalink] Posted on 17th October 2014 21:37

n.a.m.e wrote:
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I get a lot of emails from Shia and they try to be clever in trapping Ahlus-Sunnah Wal-Jammah. The Shia have a specific way of asking a question which has been borrowed by Barelwees & Ghair-Muqallids.

Positive:

When it comes to action we Ahlus-Sunnah Wal Jamaah sacrifice our minds upon the Sunnah of Nabi (Sallallaho Alaihe Wassallam). We look at actions and we try to follow Sunnah because we believe it to be the closest in fact we believe it to be ONLY WAY to Allah (SWT).

[3:31] Say (O Prophet): .If you really love Allah, then follow me, and Allah shall love you and forgive you your sins. Allah is Most-Forgiving, Very-Merciful.

So in happiness, sadness, joy or sorrow we try our best to follow the Sunnah; and if brain tells us a better action (in contrast to Sunnah) then no matter how pleasing or logical that action (may be) we reject and opt for Sunnah.

So our family customs may be "logical" in marriage but we opt for Sunnah.

Negative:

For actions which are impermissable we rely on what Allah (SWT) and Nabi (Sallallaho Alaihe Wassallam) has stated and we don't rely on our brains or customs and traditions. The following verse is about food but it is also generally applicable; we don't declare something Haram from our backpocket.

 

[10:59] Say, Have you ever considered, whatever provision Allah has sent down for your benefit, you have made up lawful and unlawful from it?. Say, Has Allah permitted you or are you fabricating a lie against Allah?.

Shia Tactic:

Shias (and their little brothers Barelwees) invent and exaggerate good actions and invent and exaggerate prohibitions and then ask for explicit evidence to counter something which they made prohibited themselves!

Whether (and whoever) married or didn’t marry in Muharram is not the point to disprove prohibitions of marriage in these months.

The point is WHO prohibited them in the first place in these months? Where is the explicit command to state that we (Muslims) shouldn’t marry in these months or shouldn’t celebrate or be happy etc?

 

Example of  this Tactic by "Barelwees":

A good friend of mine approached me after my Friday Bayan and said:

  1. I accept that Rasul-ullah (Sallallaho Alaihe Wassallam) didn't celebrate his Birthday
  2. I accept that Sahaba (RA) didn't celebarate the birthday of Rasul-ullah (Sallallaho Alaihe Wassallam)
  3. I accept that Taba'een (RA) didn't celebarate the birthday of Rasul-ullah (Sallallaho Alaihe Wassallam)
  4. I accept that Hanafi Madhab doesn't consider it Mubah to celebarate the birthday of Rasul-ullah (Sallallaho Alaihe Wassallam)

BUT:

  • Can you give me explicit evidence from Qur'aan or Sunnah as to why celebrating the birthday of Rasul-ullah (Sallallaho Alaihe Wassallam) is Haram?

They (Barelwees) have borrowed this tactic from the Shia. No sane Muslim would admit 1,2,3 & 4 and then ask a question like this!

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#7 [Permalink] Posted on 18th October 2014 20:01
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Masha Allah brother you just explained it so well.

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#8 [Permalink] Posted on 18th October 2014 20:05

Back to the subject...

The closest we have is a historical statement by Ibn Katheer (RA) in Al-Bidayah Wan-Nihayah about the marriage of Sayyidina Ali (RA) and Sayyida Fatima (RA) being at the beginning of the year (after Hijrah) and consumation the year after. This is interpreted to mean/imply "Muharram"

ونقل البيهقي من كتاب (المعرفة) لأبي عبد الله بن منده أن عليا تزوج فاطمة بعد سنة من الهجرة وابتنى بها بعد ذلك بسنة أخرى.

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#9 [Permalink] Posted on 18th October 2014 20:05
Muadh_Khan wrote:
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Brother i have deleted that part from my post!
since i am new to forums i dont know whether to keep this post or to delete it?
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#10 [Permalink] Posted on 18th October 2014 20:27
I've declined the edit of the OP as it was a fair question and there was no reason for the member to give give you a negative rating.

All you've done is asked for members to share their views about the misconception, whats wrong with that?
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#11 [Permalink] Posted on 18th October 2014 20:49
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abu mohammed wrote:
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I thought the same , khair No problem at all, My intention was not to target any specific group but rather i was encountered with this misconception personally few days back thats why i thought of sharing and getting knowledge about it .
thank you everyone for your time may Allah s.w.t bless you


Allah’s Messenger (peace be upon him) relates to us that Allah says: “The son of Adam offends Me when he curses time, for I am time. In My hand is the affair. I alternate the night and the day.” [Sahîh al-Bukhârî (4826) and Sahîh Muslim (2246)]

However, the meaning of this hadîth is not how you understand it. Time is indeed a creation of Allah. However, when a person curses time, he is in fact reviling the one who disposes of the affairs that unfold in time. Therefore, he is cursing Allah, since Allah alone is the one who brings forth all of the events that take place in time.

A curse invoked upon time is, by necessity, directed at the one who acts in time, since time has no will of its own. It is only Allah’s will that is being carried out.

For this reason, al-Shâfi`î says:
The Arabs in the time of ignorance, when they were stricken with difficulty, adversity, or tragedy, used to say: “O, the vicissitudes of time!” In this way, they would attribute those events to time and curse it on that basis. However, the doer is none other than Allah Almighty, so it was as if they were cursing Allah, for He is, in truth, the one who brought about that situation. It is in consideration of this meaning that cursing time has been prohibited.
It does not mean that Allah is time itself. This meaning is clarified further along in the hadîth where Allah is quoted as saying: “I alternate the night and the day.”

Allah’s alternation of the night and the day is his disposing of the affairs and His unfolding of the events that people will either be pleased with or detest. It means that whatever occurs of good or bad during the night or during the day – throughout time in general – happens only by Allah’s will and His design; according to His knowledge and by His decree in which no one else has any share.

Whatever Allah wills to be shall be and whatever He wills not to be shall never be. In any event, it is our duty to praise Allah, to think positively about Him, and to turn to Him in all of our affairs.

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