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I get a lot of emails from Shia and they try to be clever in trapping Ahlus-Sunnah Wal-Jammah. The Shia have a specific way of asking a question which has been borrowed by Barelwees & Ghair-Muqallids.
When it comes to action we Ahlus-Sunnah Wal Jamaah sacrifice our minds upon the Sunnah of Nabi (Sallallaho Alaihe Wassallam). We look at actions and we try to follow Sunnah because we believe it to be the closest in fact we believe it to be ONLY WAY to Allah (SWT).
[3:31] Say (O Prophet): .If you really love Allah, then follow me, and Allah shall love you and forgive you your sins. Allah is Most-Forgiving, Very-Merciful.
So in happiness, sadness, joy or sorrow we try our best to follow the Sunnah; and if brain tells us a better action (in contrast to Sunnah) then no matter how pleasing or logical that action (may be) we reject and opt for Sunnah.
So our family customs may be "logical" in marriage but we opt for Sunnah.
For actions which are impermissable we rely on what Allah (SWT) and Nabi (Sallallaho Alaihe Wassallam) has stated and we don't rely on our brains or customs and traditions. The following verse is about food but it is also generally applicable; we don't declare something Haram from our backpocket.
[10:59] Say, Have you ever considered, whatever provision Allah has sent down for your benefit, you have made up lawful and unlawful from it?. Say, Has Allah permitted you or are you fabricating a lie against Allah?.
Shias (and their little brothers Barelwees) invent and exaggerate good actions and invent and exaggerate prohibitions and then ask for explicit evidence to counter something which they made prohibited themselves!
Whether (and whoever) married or didn’t marry in Muharram is not the point to disprove prohibitions of marriage in these months.
The point is WHO prohibited them in the first place in these months? Where is the explicit command to state that we (Muslims) shouldn’t marry in these months or shouldn’t celebrate or be happy etc?
A good friend of mine approached me after my Friday Bayan and said:
They (Barelwees) have borrowed this tactic from the Shia. No sane Muslim would admit 1,2,3 & 4 and then ask a question like this!
Back to the subject...
The closest we have is a historical statement by Ibn Katheer (RA) in Al-Bidayah Wan-Nihayah about the marriage of Sayyidina Ali (RA) and Sayyida Fatima (RA) being at the beginning of the year (after Hijrah) and consumation the year after. This is interpreted to mean/imply "Muharram"
ونقل البيهقي من كتاب (المعرفة) لأبي عبد الله بن منده أن عليا تزوج فاطمة بعد سنة من الهجرة وابتنى بها بعد ذلك بسنة أخرى.
This cannot be undone and I am sure it will be greatly appreciated.