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#1 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 18:53
Question:
What is it and why is it important?
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#2 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 20:19
slander noun

/ˈslɑːndə(r)/
/ˈslændər/

[countable, uncountable]

​a false spoken statement intended to damage the good opinion people have of somebody; the legal offence of making this kind of statement

a vicious slander on the company’s good name

He's suing them for slander.
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#3 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 20:22
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#4 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 20:49
Rajab wrote:
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Excellent answers, thank you.
Quote:
​a false spoken statement intended to damage the good opinion people have of somebody; the legal offence of making this kind of statement

a vicious slander on the company’s good name


So, at what point does it become allowed especially with regard to legal usages pertaining to alleged crimes?
Opinion, allegation, conviction of a crime?
Or is it some other burden of proof? Group think?
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#5 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 21:08
For example, if I say so and so murdered a person.
At what point would that be no longer become slanderous?

The definition of murder is pretty clear.
"the crime of unlawfully killing a person especially with malice aforethought"
"to kill (a human being) unlawfully and with premeditated malice"
"to slaughter wantonly"
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/murder
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#6 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 21:14

In Need of Teaching wrote:
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In terms of Islam:

Loading Hadeeth


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#7 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 21:27
In my mind, to say "so and so" murdered someone would need some type of legal finding.
Since we're talking about a very specific crime.

I'm not talking about something said in the heat of the moment, but rather a real allegation of it.
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#8 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 21:37
What about embezzling?

That too is a very specific crime.
"to appropriate (something, such as property entrusted to one's care) fraudulently to one's own use"
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/embezzling

Wouldn't that also require some type of legal finding?
Or is it okay to say "so and so" embezzled a large amount of money based on opinion or even the opinion of more than one person?
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#9 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 21:49
In Need of Teaching wrote:
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This one is especially troubling to me.
I was told it was perfectly okay to refer to an incident where embezzlement is alleged, because the person has proven it to themselves?
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#10 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 21:59
In Need of Teaching wrote:
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Now, I may be entirely wrong on this, but since we're talking about the crime of embezzlement, I imagined the bar would be set much much higher than that or else it would be slanderous.
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#11 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 22:05

In Need of Teaching wrote:
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No.

It is Islamically impermissible to accuse someone of any sort of negativity without evidence which cannot be proven in a court of law. Following are all impermissible acts:

  1. "In Need of Teaching" is a liar
  2. "In Need of Teaching" is a fraudster
  3. "In Need of Teaching" is a fornicator
  4. "In Need of Teaching" is an embezzler

You are always supposed to think best of a Muslim, doesn't mean that you trust them with the best of your secrets or your money (understand the subtlety).

There are two exceptions in Islam in which case I have to report my "suspicions" and they are:

  1. Transactions: If "In Need of Teaching" is a fraud and someone is trying to get into business then without exaggeration, it is permissible for me to warn the other party, in fact it is my duty to warn others who could be defrauded. This can be achieved by saying "I know the Brother and I suggest that you do not engage in business transactions or do not invest with him"
  2. Marriage: If a Sister is looking to marry "In Need of Teaching" then it is my duty to reveal the truth and my suspicions as honestly as possible without exaggeration

In fact you are supposed to DISTRUST a Muslim when it comes to these two issues as per the Madhab of Imam Abu Haneefa (RA). 

If a woman is trying to marry "In Need of Teaching" then her and her wellwishers are supposed to think that "In Need of Teaching" is a JACKASS until evidence is proven to the contrary! Everything he says, has to be proven...

P.S: This is for people of course and I am not discussing state agencies like the Police, criminal investigations, espionage, intelligence etc

P.P.S: Many Muslims fallout with their best friends over marriage. The Sister or her family contacts you about (your friend) and if you follow Sunnah and your friendship is superficial it is possible that your relationship will break.

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#12 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 22:33
Ok, that was my thought too.

It seems, to me, these types of accusations are all too often tossed around casually and we're supposed to accept it.
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#13 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 22:41
Recently, I was put in the position of defending someone I didn't even like from slander.
This person had been called criminally insane and I objected to it as slander.
I was told it was acceptable behavior, simply because I had not defined the term satisfactorily to this person.

So, apparently, at least according to this person. It's perfectly acceptable to refer to people as criminally insane.
I neither have to prove that a person is a criminal nor that they are insane.

To me at least, that's simply not acceptable and I was left very confused by this other person's theory of it being acceptable.
(EDIT-Added information)
Now, keep in mind that this person I don't even like, was never convicted of a crime.
He was never diagnosed as insane by one of his doctors nor in the legal sense.

So, I'm asking, isn't that simply slander?
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#14 [Permalink] Posted on 23rd February 2020 23:51
See also

www.muftisays.com/forums/14-peoples-say/9000-humaz--lumaz...

Difference in saying things behind the back or in their face.


On a side note:
When is it slander? When is it a statement to ponder upon? When is it something thing that is being highlighted? Is it still slander / backbiting?

If someone is called a jackass (for example, as this was used as an example above, and not being directed to anyone whatsoever) is that backbiting or slander? Is it a statement to ponder upon? Is something being highlighted in their face? Is it considered slander?

I think the linked thread has some great explanations InshaAllah.
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#15 [Permalink] Posted on 24th February 2020 00:10
abu mohammed wrote:
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Quote:
When is it slander? When is it a statement to ponder upon? When is it something thing that is being highlighted? Is it still slander / backbiting?


Muadh_Khan wrote:
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Quote:
It is Islamically impermissible to accuse someone of any sort of negativity without evidence which cannot be proven in a court of law.


I thought this was a very good answer to your question.
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